By Neal Griffin
"Repent and be baptized "FOR" the remission of sins!" Acts 2:38. The works oriented scholars argue that the word "for" in this passage means "in order to" while the grace oriented scholars argue that it means "because of". And while there is much controversy over the construction that should be placed on the word I think that most scholars agree that there are different shades of meaning represented by it, the "for" in Mark 1:44 being one example. Both camps use the Bible to prove their points. Where then does the burden of proof rest? How can one be persuaded in his own mind when there is such disagreement among the scholars? Is being on the right side in this dispute essential to salvation? Many there are who demand that conformity to their conclusion in this issue is essential to salvation. I am not that sure of myself. My conclusion in this matter does, however, allow me to happily resolve in my own mind the passages which seem to oppose one another.
Abrahams faith, for example, was imputed to him for righteousness several years before he sacrificed Isaac and Paul, by the Holy Spirit, wrote that this was written for our benefit and we are to be accepted too on the same condition of faith. Romans 4:23-25. How can this be resolved with the "in order to" interpretation of the word, "for"? If it does in fact mean "in order to" then there is an irresolvable conflict between the two passages. If this were the only passage that needed to be resolved with that understanding of Acts 2:38 then perhaps the confusion could be partly justified, but there are others.
Romans 4:4-6 reveals that, "Pay does not come to a worker as a favor-he earns it! But suppose a person doesn't work for it? Instead, he believes in God who makes an ungodly man righteous. Then, his faith is regarded as righteousness. David talks about the happiness of a man whom God regards as righteous (without human effort)" SEV. Salvation is of God. It is impossible on the part of man. Matthew 19:26. "Salvation does not come from any good deeds that man can do. No, it comes by God's mercy." Titus 3:5. Paul, by the Holy Spirit, said, "I want to be in Him, not having my' righteousness (the kind that comes from the law), but having the righteousness which comes from God based on faith." Philippians 3:9. If "for" in Acts 2:38 means "in order to" then there is certainly an irreconcilable conflict between it and these passages.
It is through the benevolent will and grace of God, manifested by the blood of Jesus, that our sins are remitted and it is by trusting in this good news that we are saved. 1'st Corinthians 15:2. Righteousness is a gift from God-a free gift. We are made right by His decree based on the perfect sacrifice of Jesus and it is in this respect that His righteousness is imputed to us. Romans 5:15-18. "Blessed is the man to whom God does not impute sin". Psalms 32:1-2
Salvation is not a demonstration of the righteousness of man, but rather it is a glorious display of God's goodness. "God wanted to show the superior riches of His gracious love for all time. He did this by using Jesus to be kind to us. You have been saved by God's gracious love through faith. Salvation does not come from you; it is God's gift. It does not come from human effort. If that were true, someone could brag about earning it". Ephesians 2:7-10.
How do I resolve the "for" in Acts 2:38 with all of these passages? From my viewpoint as I am persuaded in my own mind, it must necessarily mean "because of". Certainly we must be baptized. Certainly we must repent and certainly we must be faithful but not "in order to" gain (or in anywise) merit salvation. Obedience and good works should be forthcoming from all born-again believers because anything less would not be becoming of those who are joint heirs with the Prince of peace in His Divine Kingdom. Baptism, repentance, and faithfulness are required of all Christians because they are children of the King and not because they are commanded to do so "in order to" gain salvation. When we are obedient to our biological fathers we are not obedient in order to become their children. We are obedient because we are their children and the same is true in the Spiritual family. Our heavenly Father conceived and birthed us. Our obedience is not to become His children but rather it is because we are His children. Spiritual conception and birthing, like their physical counterparts, are not accomplished by the one being born. It is God who accomplishes this life giving process. Eternal life is "impossible" on the part of man. Matthew 19:26 is very clear on this point.
What then is the significance of our obedience? Relating to salvation our good works are no more significant than "filthy rags". They just might be demonstrations of saving faith, but on the other hand they could be the outpourings of hypocritical hearts. At their very best they are but evidences and not the essence of saving faith and only God is capable of making the distinction. Many there are, however, who presume to help God out in making this distinction. By this I mean there are many who impose certain evidences as "essential" evidences. One prominent denominated religious organization adamently argues that tongue speaking is an essential evidence. Another one maintains that snake handling is essential. One sect goes so far as to argue that using instruments in worship is a denial of saving faith while a schism within it argues that supporting orphanages with "church" funds is a denial of saving faith. The question at hand is: In God's plan of salvation, where fits the "repent and be baptized" of Acts 2:38?
"By the works of (the) law shall no flesh be justified". Galatians 2:16. If we are going to put our trust for salvation in law keeping we obligate ourselves to flawlessly keep every precept of God. The absolute folly of this is clearly seen in Romans 3:23: "All have sinned and come short". The idea is doomed from the start. Our election stands not on works but on faith. Romans 9:11.
Brethren, these are the reasons why I am persuaded in my own mind that "because of" is the construction that must necessarily be placed on the word, "for", in Acts 2:38. Please consider these thoughts in light of the Word